Jesus and Jesus’ teachings
First, let’s look at Jesus’ own claims about his teachings. In Matthew’s gospel, when he sends out his disciples, he tells them not to go on the road that leads to gentiles, nor to go into Samaritan cities, but “go instead to the lost sheep of the house of Israel” (10:5-6). When speaking to a Phoenician woman, he says, “I was only sent to the lost sheep of the house of Israel” (15:24). This draws upon the imagery, from the Hebrew Bible, of Israelites as lost sheep without a shepherd (Isa. 53:6; Jer. 23:1-2; 50:6; Ezek. 34:5-6); the Messiah, Jesus, was promised to be a shepherd for these lost sheep (Ezek. 34:23-24). Furthermore, the Johannine Jesus says that salvation is “from the Jews” (Gk: ek tōn ioudaiōn; John 4:22).
These handful of verses, which are often prooftexted by hyper-dispensationalists, should be read more carefully in their context. Just because Jesus sent his disciples out to Israel doesn’t mean that his teachings aren’t applicable to gentiles; that’s a non sequitur. Later on, he did explicitly dispatch his disciples to “all the gentiles” (Gk: panta ta ethnē; Matt. 28:19), using the same word ethnoi (“nations”) used in 10:5. If his sending of his disciples to Israel alone proves that his teachings are for Israel alone, then his sending of his disciples to all the gentiles proves that his teachings are for gentiles (but really, neither argument is valid).
In the second instance, the context shows that Jesus was testing the gentile woman’s faith. He refers to the Israelites as “children,” teknoi, while referring to gentiles as “dogs,” kunaria (15:26). The woman answers that even dogs eat crumbs from the table of their master, where the children also eat (15:27). Jesus responds, “O woman, your faith is great!” (15:28) In context, Jesus’ mission to the lost sheep refers not specifically to his teachings, but to his miracles, and in fact he does perform a miracle to heal the gentile woman’s daughter (15:28). This proves that Jesus’ miracles, during his earthly ministry, were primarily for Israel (cf. Matt. 15:29-31), though he was also willing to heal faithful gentiles; it tells us nothing about the usefulness (or lack thereof) of his teachings for gentiles.
In fact, throughout Matthew’s gospel, Jesus anticipates an expansion of scope for his ministry that will include gentiles. When a faithful gentile comes to him for help, he predicts that many “sons of the kingdom” — that is, Israelites — will be cast out, while “many from east and west” will take their place in the kingdom (Matt. 8:10-12; cf. 22:1-14). Jesus “will announce justice to the gentiles... and in his name gentiles will hope” (12:15-21). Though sent to Israel, he performs a miracle for a gentile woman (15:21-28). The kingdom of God is taken from the Jewish religious leaders and given to “another nation” (Gk: ethnei; 21:33-45). This culminates in Jesus sending his disciples to “all the gentiles” (28:19).
The same thing is found in the other gospel accounts. Mark records the same incident where Jesus saved a gentile woman’s daughter (7:24-30), and in the long ending, Jesus tells his disciples to go out to “the whole world” (Gk: ton kosmon hapanta) and preach the good news to “every creation” (Gk: pasē tē ktisei; 16:15). In the Luke-Acts corpus, Jesus is said to be both “a light for revelation to gentiles and glory to your people Israel” (Lk. 2:32); he tells his disciples to go first to Jerusalem, then both Judea and Samaria, and finally “to the extreme parts of the earth” (Ac. 1:8), to preach to “all the gentiles, having begun from Jerusalem” (Lk. 24:47). They first preach to diaspora Jews of all nations in Jerusalem (Ac. 2), then to Jews and Greeks across the land (11:19-20), and it’s divinely revealed that God will accept gentiles who “work righteousness” without requiring them to become ethnic Jews (10:9-11:18).
In the gospel of John, although Jesus says that salvation is “from the Jews” because the temple for worship was in Jerusalem (4:20-22), he anticipates a soon-coming time when true worship will no longer be only in Jerusalem — by extension, salvation will no longer be only “from the Jews” (4:21, 23-24). The Johannine Jesus anticipates the extension of his ministry to “other sheep which aren’t from this fold,” which will become “one flock” (10:16). At the end of his public ministry, “some Greeks” seek Jesus and aren’t turned away (12:20-22). John’s gospel never says anything about the gentiles, ethnoi, explicitly, but it does talk about an expansion of Jesus’ ministry beyond the Jews.
Paul and Jesus’ teachings
Jesus anticipated that his ministry would expand beyond ethnic Jews, and even hyper-dispensationalists can’t deny that gentiles who “work righteousness” can be saved under his teachings without becoming ethnic Jews (Ac. 10:34-35). However, they claim that Paul’s audience isn’t under Jesus’ teachings; after all, in his gospel, salvation isn’t dependent upon works at all (e.g., Eph. 2:8-10), which is a legitimate difference between him and the other apostles. But what did Paul have to say about the usefulness of the teachings of Jesus while he was on earth?
The clearest teaching about this is in the Pastoral Epistles (1 & 2 Timothy, Titus). There, Paul says that those who don’t listen to “these things” and “the sound words our Lord Jesus Christ” are “conceited, knowing nothing, having an unhealthy attitude about controversy and disputes over words,” from which come all manner of sins (1 Tim. 6:3-4). The preceding context suggests that Paul is referring to Jesus’ words as recorded in the gospel accounts, because he quotes the exact words of Jesus as recorded in Luke 10:7 (Gk: axios ho ergatēs tou misthou autou), referring to them as “the Scripture” (1 Tim. 5:18). Elsewhere, he says that “every Scripture” is useful for teaching and moral instruction (2 Tim. 3:16-17), which must therefore include Jesus’ teachings in his ministry.
The best case for strict hyper-dispensationalism could be made if the Pastoral Epistles aren’t actually written by Paul, which is ironic, since hyper-dispensationalists are mostly absolute Biblical inerrantists who must regard the Pastorals as authentic. However, even in Paul’s undisputed epistles, he assumes the usefulness of Jesus’ teachings for his audience.
In one place, he cites a command of “the Lord” that a husband and wife shouldn’t be divorced, and that the wife should stay unmarried if she is divorced, which Paul considers to be binding on his audience (1 Cor. 7:10-11). This command is found in all three synoptic gospel accounts (Mk. 10:2-12; Matt. 19:3-12; Lk. 16:18). While it’s technically possible that Paul has a different command in mind, one that was revealed only to him, Ockham’s Razor militates against such a possibility. We shouldn’t postulate a second commandment when we know of an identical one from the gospel accounts.
But didn’t Paul say that Jesus was “a minister of the circumcision” (Rom. 15:8)? Yes, but prooftexting this in favor of hyper-dispensationalism ignores the context. Paul says that “Christ received you... for [Gk: gar] Christ has become a servant of the circumcision, on behalf of the truth of God, to confirm the promises made to the fathers, and that the gentiles might glorify God” (15:7-9). He then goes on to cite many Scriptures that prove the gentiles would come to worship God through the Messiah (15:10-12). Paul’s point, therefore, is to show that Christ’s ministry did indeed have the secondary purpose of bringing in the gentiles, though he was primarily a servant of Israel.
Two different ‘good news’?
Any unbiased reader of the Scriptures should agree that there are differences between Paul and the other writers of the New Testament. For Jesus and the other apostles, works are a prerequisite of salvation along with faith (Matt. 5:17-20; 16:27; 23:1-3; John 14:15-24; 15:10-12; 2 Pet. 1:10f; 1 John 2:3-6; 5:1-4; Jas. 2:10-24), but for Paul, salvation is by grace through faith alone (Rom. 3:27-28; 4:5; 11:5-6; Gal. 2:16; Eph. 2:8-9; Php. 3:9; 2 Tim. 1:9; Tit. 3:4-5), and works are a result of this (2 Cor. 9:8; Gal. 5:22-25; Eph. 2:10; Php. 1:6; 2:12-13; Tit. 2:11-14; 3:8). For John, the message through which one is saved is simply that Jesus is the Messiah (John 14:15-24; 15:10-12; 20:31; 1 John 2:3-11; 3:18-24; 4:7-5:5), but for Paul, the message through which one is saved is that the Messiah died for our sins and was raised on the third day (1 Cor. 15:1-5; cf. Rom. 10:9).
Despite these differences, I’m no longer convinced that this requires two entirely separate “good news” or gospels (Gk: euangelion) for Paul and the other apostles. Yes, Paul spoke of “my good news” (Rom. 2:16; 16:25; Eph. 3:1-3; Col. 1:25-26; 2 Tim. 2:8), but he also spoke of “our good news” (2 Cor. 4:3; 1 Thess. 1:5; 2 Thess. 2:14), “the good news of God” (Rom. 1:1; 15:16; 1 Thess. 2:2, 8-9), and most often “the good news of Christ” (Rom. 15:19; 1 Cor. 9:12; 2 Cor. 4:4; 9:13; Gal. 1:7; Phil. 1:27; 1 Thess. 3:2; cf. 2 Thess. 1:8). “The good news of Jesus Christ” is what was also proclaimed by the gospel accounts (Mk. 1:1). Paul says that the same good news was proclaimed by him and the other apostles (1 Cor. 15:1-11). “The good news” is for “every believing-one, Jewish first and also Greek,” not just for some believing-ones (Rom. 1:16).
Furthermore, hyper-dispensationalists claim that the other apostles must have never truly understood Paul’s gospel — otherwise they would’ve been part of “the body of Christ” and not “the Israel of God.” But Paul himself, though he emphasizes that his good news comes from Christ alone and no other human (Gal. 1:6-12), also says that he “laid before [the other apostles] the good news that I proclaim among the gentiles” to make sure that it wasn’t “for nothing” (2:2). This implies that the other apostles, even if they didn’t preach Paul’s gospel, certainly knew about it. In the same passage, he says that he preached the same faith that he used to persecute (1:22-24), and nowhere indicates that he ever changed what he preached. [2]
Paul’s gospel is said to have been “a secret” in times past (Rom. 16:25; Eph. 3:3; Col. 1:26), which hyper-dispensationalists appeal to as proof that it can’t have been taught before him. Yet this “secret” is said to have been contained in the Old Testament prophets (Rom. 16:25-26; cf. Gal. 3:8); his “good news” is “according to the Scriptures” (1 Cor. 15:1-4). The good news that Paul proclaims was made manifest not by Paul himself, but by “the appearance of our Savior, Christ Jesus” (2 Tim. 1:9-10; cf. 1 Pet. 1:20).
How then can we explain the clear differences between Paul and the other apostles? One way is simply to reject absolute Biblical inerrancy; every Scripture is God-breathed and useful for teaching and moral instruction (2 Tim. 3:16-17), but never claims to be absolutely without error or human influence. Maybe the apostles simply disagreed on comparatively minor issues, like whether works come logically before or after salvation, while agreeing on the larger “good news.” [3] The other possible solution, which I favor, is the one I set forth in my recent post about dispensationalism: perhaps the writings of the other apostles are to God’s people as a whole, while Paul’s writings are to the subset of God’s people who understand the true meaning of Christ’s death and resurrection, who are therefore charged with “the message of reconciliation” (2 Cor. 5:18-20).
Conclusion
Hyper-dispensationalists draw a severe distinction between Paul’s teachings and the teachings of Jesus (while he was on earth) and his disciples. This distinction, although supported by some clear differences between Paul and the other apostles, is contradicted in several places by Jesus and Paul themselves. Jesus’ teachings aren’t only for ethnic Jews, but were considered by Paul to be useful for his audience, as well. A sharp distinction between the “good news” preached by Paul and the other apostles can’t be drawn, and the evident differences between Paul and the other apostles can be explained in other ways. For these reasons, even though I used to strongly argue for hyper-dispensationalism, I don’t think it’s a sustainable view in light of the whole testimony of the Scriptures.
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[1] See my series of posts on the topic of “Pauline Dispensationalism.”
[2] This context suggests that the apparent distinction between a “good news of the uncircumcised” and “of the circumcised” at Gal. 2:7 should be understood as what Wallace calls the “Genitive of Direction” (for which he gives the example of Rom. 8:36, “sheep for slaughter”). Paul was given to preach the good news to the gentiles, while Peter was given to preach it to ethnic Jews. This is supported by the context: he goes on to say (2:8) that the same one (God) was working in Peter “for a commission to the circumcised” (Gk: eis apostolēn tēs peritomēs) and in himself “to the gentiles” (Gk: eis ta ethnē). In the next verse (2:9), he says that he and the other apostles agreed that he should go “to the gentiles” (Gk: eis ta ethnē) and them “to the circumcised” (Gk: eis tēn peritomēn). The emphasis is on the difference in direction, not in type, of the commission.
[3] It’s also possible that — in the case of works — there’s no contradiction at all. Paul may simply be emphasizing the divine point of view, by which our works are the result of God working in us, while the other apostles emphasize the human point of view. The other apostles do also say, in some places, that our works are the result of God and Christ in us (Heb. 8:10-11; 10:14-17; 1 John 4:10-12, 17-19; cf. Deut. 30:6; Jer. 24:7; 31:33-34; Ezek. 11:19-20; 36:26-28).