Just how long is ‘eternal’? A study on the meanings of Αιων and Αιωνιος (part 2 of 5)

Part 1: https://universalistheretic.blogspot.com/2022/06/just-how-long-is-eternal-study-on.html

    The Wisdom Literature (Job - Ecclesiastes)

There is only one instance of olam in Job that suits our purposes, and that is in Job 41:4, where a rhetorical question is asked of whether it is possible to take the Leviathan as an olam servant (LXX: δουλον αιωνιον). The implied answer to the question is “no,” however, it is important to note that “everlasting” is not a possible meaning of olam in this context. Rather, for the Leviathan to be an olam servant would simply mean that it is a servant for as long as it will live (cf. Exod. 21:6; Lev. 25:46; Deut. 15:17).

    The book of Psalms uses the word olam far more than any other book of the Old Testament. In this book, there are many instances of this word where it cannot refer to a time period without end. See the following categories of examples:

Preservation of life of the righteous: 12:7; 15:5; 21:4; 37:27; 55:22; 61:7; 112:6; 121:8 (even though the righteous, including David, did eventually die)

Individuals worshipping God: 5:11; 30:12; 52:9; 75:9; 86:12; 89:1; 115:18 (even though David repeatedly writes that once one dies, they can no longer worship God; Psa. 6:4-5; 30:8-10; 88:9-12; 115:17)

Blessing of the righteous: 28:9; 45:2 (even though the righteous, including David, did experience adversity and eventually died)

The throne of the king: 45:6 (clearly meaning only as long as the king’s reign)

The prosperity of the ungodly: 73:12 (even though they are immediately afterward said to be ruined and destroyed!!)

The earth: 78:69; 104:5 (even though this earth will be destroyed; Isa. 65:17; 2 Pet. 3:10; Rev. 21:1)

The Abrahamic covenant: 105:10

The keeping of the Mosaic Law: 119:44, 93, 98, 111-112, 142, 144, 152, 160 (even though the Law will pass away when the current heavens and earth pass away; Matt. 5:18 cf. Rev. 21:1)

Mount Zion: 125:1-2 (even though this earth, including Mount Zion, will be destroyed)

Clearly, the author of the book of Psalms did not see the word olam as representing a strictly everlasting period of time, but instead an indefinitely long period of time: from a single human lifespan to the length of existence of the earth.

    There are no notable occurrences of the word olam in the book of Proverbs that add to what has already been discussed.

    The author of Ecclesiastes writes that the earth itself shall abide “for olam” (LXX: εις τον αιωνα, “for the age”; 1:4), even though the earth will itself eventually be destroyed and replaced by a New Earth (2 Pet. 3:10; Rev. 21:1). He also says that neither the wise nor the fool will be remembered olam (LXX: εις αιωνα, “for an age”) after their deaths (2:16), that no one who has died will ever again be under the sun “for olam” (LXX: εις αιωνα, “for an age”; 9:6), and that the grave is the olam dwelling (LXX: οικον αιωνος; 12:5) of humanity — none of which can be describing an infinite time period without end in light of the doctrine of the resurrection, which was understood even before Ecclesiastes was written (1 Sam. 2:6; Job 19:25-27; Ps. 16:9-10; 17:15).

    Overall, the usage of the word olam (and its equivalents αιων and αιωνιος in the LXX) throughout the wisdom literature of the Old Testament parallels its usage in the Pentateuch and historical books which we have already covered. This word was understood to refer to an indefinitely long time period, from a single human lifespan, to the period between death and the resurrection, to the existence of the earth itself. However, this word was not used to describe a period of time that is strictly without end.

    The Major and Minor Prophets (Isaiah - Malachi)

The book of Isaiah contains some of the clearest examples of olam as an indefinitely long, although not everlasting, period of time. Isa. 24:5 states that certain people have broken the “olam covenant” (LXX: διαθηκην αιωνιον). Isa. 32:14-15 states that the city of Jerusalem shall remain abandoned and forsaken “even olam” (LXX: εως του αιωνος, “unto the age”), meaning “until the spirit is poured on us from on high.” Isa. 58:12 and 61:4 state that the “olam wastes” (LXX: ερημοι αιωνιοι) will be built again. Clearly, none of these examples of olam can refer to a period of time that is without end, since in all four cases, the period is explicitly said to have an end.

    Isa. 9:7 states that the throne of a coming king will be established “from now on and even olam” (LXX: απο του νυν και εις τον αιωνα χρονον, “from now and for the age-time”). Many scholars believe that this passage was originally written about Hezekiah (though it finds secondary fulfillment in Jesus), in which case olam can only refer to that king’s lifespan. Isa. 34:10 states that the smoke from Edom’s destruction will go up olam (LXX: εις τον αιωνα χρονον, “for the age-time”); since the smoke is no longer going up, this is clearly hyperbolic language referring to the extent of the destruction that will occur, and not to an everlasting period.

    The next major prophet, Jeremiah, writes that the fire of Yahweh’s anger will burn olam against Israel (17:4), even though God later said that His anger would cease (30:24) and that He would again show olam mercy and love to Israel (31:3; 33:11). This is a common theme throughout the book of Jeremiah: we are repeatedly told that Israel will be an olam (LXX: αιωνιος) desolation and reproach (18:16; 20:11; 23:40; 25:9), and yet the duration of their punishment is also explicitly stated to be only seventy years, even just a few verses later (25:11-12; 29:10). [1] It is also repeatedly promised that Babylon will be an olam (LXX: εις τον αιωνα, “for the age”; and αιωνιος) desolation (51:26, 39, 57, 62), even though it again flourished under Hellenic rule just two centuries later.

    According to Ezekiel 35:5, 9, because Edom had “olam enmity” (LXX: εχθραν αιωνιαν) against Israel, they would be made an “olam desolation” (LXX: ερημιαν αιωνιον); neither of these were without beginning, nor without end, for Edom did not always exist and is now again a populated country. Ezek. 36:2 says that the enemies of Israel had taken over the “olam high places” (LXX: ερημα αιωνια). Were these high places literally everlasting? Obviously not, but they had existed for a rather long time and would go on to exist as places of pagan worship for even longer; olam here is taken to mean an indefinitely long period. Ezek. 46:14 speaks of an offering to be made at the temple during the Messianic age as an “olam statute,” although there will no longer be a temple after the Messianic age (Rev. 21:22), and so in this case olam can refer to a period no longer than the 1000 years of that age (Rev. 20:4-6).

    One of the most interesting usages of olam in the Old Testament is found in the book of Jonah. According to Jon. 2:6, Jonah was dead inside of the whale “for olam.” The LXX has an alternate reading here which states that “αιωνιοι barriers” surrounded Jonah. In both of these cases, neither olam nor αιωνιος can refer to something that is truly everlasting, because Jonah was only dead inside of the whale for three days and nights (!!), according to Jon. 1:17. Apparently, both olam and αιωνιος can refer to a period as short as three days.

    According to Habakkuk 3:6, the “olam hills” (LXX: βουνοι αιωνιοι) will be destroyed by God. Clearly, in this context olam cannot refer to something that is without end, because the hills are explicitly said to have an end. Finally, the last example of olam referring to something temporal can be found in the characterization of Edom’s desolation as olam (LXX: εις τον αιωνα, “for the age”; and εως αιωνος, “unto an age”) in Obad. 1:10 and Mal. 1:4. Since the territory of Edom was eventually repopulated, this cannot refer to a time period that is without end.

    The Olam God

Now that we have looked at fully 172 of the instances of olam in the Old Testament, and their equivalent Greek phrases in the LXX (where it is mostly rendered as εως αιωνος, εις τον αιωνα, or αιωνιος), we can determine what these words meant to the writers of the Hebrew Bible and the translators of the LXX. Overall, they seem to have been used to describe indefinitely long periods of time, but not usually periods of time without end. It was used in reference to the length of a king’s reign, human lifespans, periods of multiple generations, the duration of the earth, and even (in one case) a period of three days.

    However, some argue that because the word olam is applied to God throughout the Old Testament, and God is everlasting, the word olam must mean “everlasting” in each and every instance. This word is used variously to describe God Himself (Gen. 21:33; Ps. 9:7; 93:2; 102:12; Isa. 40:28; Lam. 5:19; Dan. 4:34), God’s name (Exod. 3:15; 1 Chron. 17:24; Ps. 72:19; 135:13; Isa. 63:12, 16), God’s reign as king (Ps. 29:10; 92:8; 146:10; Jer. 10:10), God’s mercy (1 Chron. 16:34, 41; 2 Chron. 5:13; 7:3, 6; 20:21; Ps. 89:2, 28; 100:5; 106:1; 107:1; 118:1-4, 29; 136; 138:8; Isa. 54:8; Jer. 33:11), and various other attributes of God (Deut. 32:40; 33:27; Ps. 33:11; 104:31; 119:89; Isa. 26:4; 40:8; Hab. 3:6).

    The argument that, because God is described as olam, this word must always mean “everlasting,” is very obviously fallacious. We have shown that olam refers to an indefinitely long period, which does include (but is not, by any means, limited to) an everlasting period of time; the existence of God, being eternal, always stretches indefinitely into the future, and so can rightly be described as olam. Furthermore, if we took this word to always mean an everlasting period of time, this would create a contradiction in each of the one hundred and seventy-two examples of non-everlasting olam listed above.

    However, even though this is not necessary for our argument that olam always refers to an indefinitely long period of time, I believe that it can be shown that olam actually never refers to an everlasting period of time, even in the several dozen instances where it is applied to God Himself. This is because there are multiple instances where God is described as not only olam, but le’olam wa’ed - “for olam and further.” See the following examples:

Yahweh shall reign for olam and further. [LXX: τον αιωνα και επ αιωνα και ετι, “for age upon age and further”] (Exod. 15:18)

Blessed be Yahweh, God of Israel, from the olam to the olam. [LXX: απο του αιωνος και εως του αιωνος, “from the age and unto the age”] (1 Chron. 16:36)

“Blessed are You, Yahweh God of Israel, our Father, from the olam to the olam.” [LXX: απο του αιωνος και εως του αιωνος, “from the age and unto the age”] (1 Chron. 29:10)

“Bless Yahweh, your God, from the olam to the olam.” [LXX: απο του αιωνος και εως του αιωνος, “from the age and unto the age”] (Neh. 9:5)

Yahweh is King for olam and further. [LXX: εις τον αιωνα και εις τον αιωνα του αιωνος, “for the age and for the age of the age”] (Ps. 10:16)

Blessed be Yahweh, God of Israel, from the olam to the olam. [LXX: απο του αιωνος και εις τον αιωνα, “from the age and for the age”] (Ps. 41:13)

For this is God, our God, for olam and further. [LXX: εις τον αιωνα και εις τον αιωνα του αιωνος, “for the age and for the age of the age”] (Ps. 48:14)

Even from olam to olam, You are God. [LXX: απο του αιωνος εως του αιωνος, “from the age unto the age”] (Ps. 90:2)

But the mercy of Yahweh is from olam to olam. [LXX: απο του αιωνος και εως του αιωνος, “from the age and unto the age”] (Ps. 103:17)

Blessed be Yahweh, God of Israel, from the olam to the olam. [LXX: απο του αιωνος και εως του αιωνος, “from the age and unto the age”] (Ps. 106:48)

I will bless your name for olam and further... and I will praise your name for olam and further. [LXX: εις τον αιωνα και εις τον αιωνα του αιωνος, “for the age and for the age of the age”] (Ps. 145:1-2)

My mouth shall speak the praise of Yahweh, and all flesh shall bless His name for olam and further. [LXX: εις τον αιωνα και εις τον αιωνα του αιωνος, “for the age and for the age of the age”] (Ps. 145:21)

It should be obvious that if there are multiple olams, such that God can be “from olam to olam,” and if it is possible to say “for olam and further,” then the olam itself cannot refer to an everlasting period, even when used in reference to God. The LXX reflects this fact, as the phrases εις τον αιωνα and εως του αιωνος are not enough to fully encapsulate the period of God’s existence, and therefore cannot, by themselves, refer to an eternal or everlasting period.

    But then, how can God and His attributes be described as olam, if He exists for longer than the olam? Well, if we recognize that olam refers to the current period of time in one is living, and stretches indefinitely into the past and future, then God’s characterization as olam means that He operates and works in the current olam. He is not a distant and unapproachable God, but exists as our helper in the present time.

    The answer to the question, “Does God exist for the olam?” is, “Yes, He is our olam God.” But He does not exist only for the olam — He exists for olam and further, from the olam to the olam. This is the same as the fact that Yahweh is characterized as “Lord of all the earth” (Josh. 3:11, 13) does not contradict the fact that He is also uncontained by even the highest heavens (2 Chron. 2:6).

    Summary: the use of Olam and Αιων in the Old Testament

Having examined the usage of the word olam in the Hebrew Bible, and its Greek equivalents αιων and αιωνιος in the Septuagint, we can say with certainty that these words were not understood to refer to eternity, or to an everlasting period, by either the original writers of the Old Testament or the translators of the LXX. Even when these terms are applied to God, they appear to describe His interaction with humanity in the current time, rather than His everlasting and eternal nature (which is instead contained in the phrases “for olam and further,” “from the olam to the olam”).

    Because olam, αιων, and αιωνιος were used to describe indefinitely long periods of time in the Old Testament, and not everlasting periods of time (even when applied to God), it is inconsistent to think that they would have been used as such in the New Testament. The LXX is perhaps the literary work most closely related to the NT, and even that used the phrases εις τον αιωνα, εως του αιωνος, and αιωνιος to describe periods of indefinite length rather than everlasting periods. But does this bear itself out in the text of the NT? The next part of this study will examine the usage of these terms in the NT itself.

Part 3: https://universalistheretic.blogspot.com/2022/07/just-how-long-is-eternal-study-on.html

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[1] It is very interesting that the LXX uses the adjective αιωνιος in the book of Jeremiah to describe a seventy-year punishment, and yet when the New Testament states that the punishment of unbelievers will be αιωνιος, virtually all translators take it to mean an everlasting punishment. This certainly says something about the preconceptions which translators bring to the text.

Just how long is ‘eternal’? A study on the meanings of Αιων and Αιωνιος (part 1 of 5)

    The strong evidence from scripture for universal salvation is pushed away and ignored by most Christians on the basis of passages that characterize the punishment of unbelievers as “eternal,” especially Matthew 25:46. These passages use the Greek adjective αιωνιος, and occasionally the noun αιων, to describe the punishment of unbelievers — words which are taken by the majority of Bible translators to mean “everlasting” in these contexts. However, the evidence for universalism cannot be ignored so easily. As I demonstrated in my recent post, “Two irrefutable arguments for universal salvation,” there are not only direct statements in scripture that all people will be saved, but this fact is also a logical necessity from God’s sovereignty and love for all people (both of which are clearly established themes throughout the Bible).

    So then, if scripture appears to clearly teach both eternal punishment (whether torment or annihilation) and that all people will eventually be saved, do we have an irreconcilable contradiction? Not in the slightest. As I will attempt to show in this series of posts, contrary to the traditional understanding of αιων (pronouned ai-ohn) and αιωνιος (pronounced ai-ohn-ee-os), these words do not indicate everlastingness, but instead describe things that pertain to a time period with a set beginning and end — an “age” or “eon.” The punishment of unbelievers, whether characterized by torment or annihilation, will not last for eternity, but instead for the ages, and will eventually come to an end.

    Olam and Αιων in the Septuagint

For those who are unaware, the Septuagint (LXX) was a Koine Greek translation of the original Hebrew text of the Old Testament, produced in the third and second centuries BC. In (second Temple) Jewish and early Christian communities, the LXX was by far the most commonly used version of the Hebrew Bible, and most of the Old Testament quotations found in the New Testament and other early Christian writings are taken directly from it. For this reason, the LXX is one of the most valuable tools for examining how Greek words were used by the ancient Jewish and Christian communities, and extrapolating this usage to the New Testament.

    According to the translators of the LXX, the direct Hebrew equivalent of the Greek words αιων and αιωνιος is olam (עוֹלָם). This word comes from another word, ne’elam (נֶעֱלַם), meaning “hidden” or “concealed,” and literally refers to a time which is so far off in the past and/or future that it is effectively concealed. However, it rarely — if ever — refers to a time period that is truly without beginning and/or without end.

    Adam Clarke, a 19th-century Methodist theologian and Bible scholar, wrote in his commentary on 2 Kings 5:27 that “the import of the word לעולם leolam... takes in the whole extent or duration of the thing to which it is applied.” According to Parkhurst’s lexicon, “Olam seems to be used much more for an indefinite than for an infinite time.” In agreement with this, the Encyclopedia Dictionary of the Bible (a Catholic Bible dictionary) states:

The Bible hardly speaks of eternity in the philosophical sense of infinite duration without beginning or end. The Hebrew word olam, which is used alone [Ps. 61:8; etc.] or with various prepositions [Gn. 3:22; etc.] in contexts where it is traditionally translated as ‘forever,’ means in itself no more than ‘for an indefinitely long period.’ Thus, ‘me olam’ does not mean ‘from eternity’ but ‘of old’ [Gn. 6:4, etc.]. In the N.T. aion is used as the equivalent of olam. (p. 693)

Now that we’ve examined the basic meaning of olam according to scholarly sources, let’s take a look at all of the major uses of this word in the Old Testament, and their Greek equivalents in the LXX.

    The Pentateuch (Genesis - Deuteronomy)

The first instance of olam is in Genesis 3:22, where it is said that God sent Adam and Eve out of the Garden of Eden lest they eat from the Tree of Life and “live olam” (LXX: εις τον αιωνα, “for the age”). Although one might be tempted to translate olam in this instance as “forever,” it is important to note that the life being referred to here is actually conditioned upon eating from the Tree of Life. Therefore, it is not strictly without end, but in line with the lexicon definitions of olam, refers to an indefinite (not necessarily unending) period of time.

    Some of the next examples of olam in the Hebrew Bible are used in reference to the Abrahamic covenant. For example, in Gen. 13:15, this covenant is said to be established with Abraham and his descendants “even olam” (LXX: εως του αιωνος, “unto the age”), and five separate times in Gen. 17 it is referred to as an “olam covenant” (LXX: διαθηκην αιωνιον); again in Gen. 48:4, Jacob recounts how God told him that the land of Israel would be his “olam possession” (LXX: κατασχεσιν αιωνιον). See also Exod. 32:13 and Josh. 14:9.

    However, the Abrahamic covenant and the Israelite possession of the land did not last eternally or perpetually, as they were removed from the land several times over, even throughout the Old Testament period. Neither will it remain forever, since the land of Israel itself will only last until the end of the Messianic age, when this earth passes away and is replaced by a New Earth (Isa. 65:17; Rev. 21:1). Therefore, this usage of olam can only mean a period of time indefinite from the perspective of Abraham (although with a determined endpoint), rather than an infinite period of time that is without end.

    The next usage of olam is in Gen. 49:26, where the hills are described as olam (see also Deut. 33:15 and Hab. 3:6). The LXX renders this instance of olam as μονιμων, meaning “permanent.” However, the hills themselves will not last for a period of time that is without end — in fact, the olam (LXX: αιωνιοι) hills are said to be destroyed by the presence of Yahweh in Habakkuk 3:6. Rather, the hills, from the perspective of Jacob, will last for an indefinitely long time period.

    Throughout the rest of the Pentateuch, olam is used as an adjective to describe the statutes and feasts of the Old Covenant. For example, the Feast of Unleavened Bread is referred to as an “olam statute” (LXX: νομιμον αιωνιος) in Exod. 12:14, 17, and 24. The Levirite priesthood is repeatedly said to be olam (LXX: αιωνιος) in many passages (Exod. 27:21; 28:43; 29:9, 28; 30:21; 40:15; Lev. 16:34; 24:3, 8, 9; Num. 18:23; 19:10, 21; 25:13), and certain statutes relating to the system of sacrifice and offering are described as olam (Lev. 3:17; 6:18, 22; 7:34, 36; 10:9, 15; 17:7; 23:14, 21, 41; Num. 10:8; 15:15; 18:8, 11, 19). However, all of these were overturned with the introduction of the New Covenant and the beginning of the priesthood of Christ (Heb. 7:11-28; 8:7-13; 10:1-18). Therefore, in these cases olam absolutely cannot be understood as referring to a time period without end, but to an indefinitely long time period.

    Instead of referring to a time period without end, as it is usually translated, olam is explicitly glossed by “to your generations” multiple times throughout the Pentateuch (Exod. 12:13, 17; 27:21, 30:21; 40:15; Lev. 3:17; 6:18; 7:36; 10:7; 17:7; 23:14, 21, 41; 24:3; Num. 10:8; 15:15; 18:23), clearly referring to a time period lasting multiple — but not infinite — generations. An idiomatic translation of this might be that it will “last as long as it will last.” In fact, in one place, olam is said to be “ten generations” and no more (Deut. 23:3), and just a few verses later said to be “all your days” (Deut. 23:6), referring to a human lifespan that is clearly not infinite.

    The fact that olam can mean as little as a single human lifespan is confirmed by Exod. 21:6, Lev. 25:46, and Deut. 15:17, where it is said that a person can become someone else’s servant olam (LXX: εις τον αιωνα, “for the age”). Obviously, this does not refer to an infinitely long period of time, but only however long that servant’s life will last. This period of time is indefinitely (but not infinitely) long from the perspective of the humans involved.

    In summary, the meaning of olam (and in the LXX, αιων and its adjectival form αιωνιος) throughout the Pentateuch is not a period of time that is without end, but an indefinitely long period of time. This can refer to as little as a single human lifespan, or as long as the existence of the Abrahamic covenant, which will last from the time of Abraham until the end of the Messianic age. However, the word olam (and therefore the words αιων and αιωνιος) does not inherently carry the meaning of “without end.”

    The Historical Books (Joshua - Nehemiah)

The use of olam in the book of Joshua is largely in line with what we have already seen. In Josh. 4:7, stone set up as a memorial is said to be a memorial “even olam” (LXX: εως του αιωνος, “unto the age”), although that stone no longer remains, at the time it was set up it was meant to be a perpetual reminder to last indefinitely. The city of Ai is said to become a heap “even olam” (LXX: εις τον αιωνα, “for the age”), meaning “to this day” (Josh. 8:28).

    At Joshua 24:2, we encounter a new usage of olam. This is a past-tense olam, in which it is said that Abraham’s ancestors, Terah and Nahor, lived in Mesopotamia “from olam.” This is never used to describe events in eternity past, but instead events that occurred long enough ago so as to be out of memory. As a modern parallel, someone today might hyperbolically say that “the Civil War happened forever ago,” even though this war did not actually occur in eternity past. For further examples of this usage of olam, see Gen. 6:4; Deut. 32:7; 1 Sam. 27:8; Job 22:15; Ps. 24:7-9; 77:5; 119:52; 143:3; Prov. 8:23; 22:28; 23:10; Ecc. 1:10; Isa. 42:14; 46:9; 51:9; 63:9-11; 64:4; Jer. 5:15; Ezek. 26:20; 36:2; Amos 9:11; Mic. 5:2; and Mic. 7:14.

    In 1 Samuel 1:22, Hannah says that she will dedicate her son, Samuel, to serve Yahweh in the house of Eli “even olam” (LXX: εως αιωνος, “unto an age”), meaning “as long as he lives” (1 Sam. 1:28). We are then told that, although Yahweh promised that He would not forsake Eli’s house olam (LXX: εως αιωνος, “unto an age”), He would now destroy Eli and his descendants (1 Sam. 2:30-31). God then promises that there would be no atonement for the sins of Eli’s house olam (1 Sam. 3:13-14), although Jesus later died as a ransom for all mankind (1 Tim. 2:5-6), clearly including Eli and his descendants! Did God repeatedly flip-flop on His promises? No, because olam does not describe an infinite, unending time period, but an indefinitely long period.

    1 Sam. 13:13 says that God would establish Saul’s kingdom “even olam” (LXX: εως αιωνος, “unto an age”), which refers to, at most, Saul’s own lifespan. 1 Chron. 28:4 states that David was chosen to be king olam (LXX: εις τον αιωνα, “for the age”), clearly referring to only David’s lifespan and no longer. 2 Sam. 7:13, 16, 25, 29, and 1 Chron. 17:12, 14, 22, 27; 22:10; and 28:7 state that Yahweh would establish David’s son’s kingdom “even olam” (LXX: εις τον αιωνα, “for the age”), a prophecy which was originally fulfilled in Solomon (1 Chron. 28:6-7), and thus only refers to the days of Solomon’s lifespan.

    God promises in 2 Sam. 12:10 that the sword will not turn from David’s house “even olam” (LXX: εως αιωνος, “unto an age”). In stark contrast, God later promises in 1 Kings 2:33 that David’s house will have peace “even olam” (LXX: εις τον αιωνα, “for the age”), and Solomon’s reign was one of unprecedented peace! And yet, this again was followed by an era of hostility. This only makes sense if olam refers to an indefinitely long, but not without end, period of time. A few verses later (1 Kings 2:45) it is said that Solomon’s throne will be established olam (LXX: εις τον αιωνα, “for the age”) obviously referring only to Solomon’s own lifetime — this promise is repeated in 1 Kings 9:5.

    1 Kings 8:13; 9:3; 2 Kings 21:7; 2 Chron. 6:2; 7:16; 30:8; and 33:4 state that the first Temple built by Solomon will be the home of Yahweh olamim (LXX: εις τον αιωνα, “for the age”), although it was later deserted by God and destroyed in 587 BC, even before Kings and Chronicles were written. 2 Kings 5:27 states that Gehazi and his descendants will be leprous “for olam” (LXX: εις τον αιωνα, “for the age”), meaning as long as Gehazi’s line remains in existence. [1]

    1 Chron. 15:2 and 23:13 describe the Levirite priesthood as olam (LXX: εως αιωνος, “unto an age”), reminiscent of the statements in the Pentateuch stating that the Aaronic priesthood would last for the age; however, per Heb. 7:11-28, the Levirite priesthood has since been abolished and replaced with the priesthood of Christ. 1 Chron. 16:15-17 characterizes the Abrahamic covenant as olam (LXX: εις αιωνα, “for an age”; and αιωνιον), yet as noted above, the covenant was nullified at certain points in Israel’s history when they were not in control of the land, and will be finally abolished when this heaven and earth are destroyed (Isa. 65:17; Rev. 21:1).

    Ezra 3:11 states that Yahweh’s mercy to Israel is “for olam” (LXX: εις τον αιωνα, “for the age”), although God is currently hardening Israel and is not showing mercy to the vast majority of Israel until the “fullness of the Gentiles” comes in (Rom. 11:7-10, 25). According to Nehemiah 13:1, it is written in the Torah that no Ammonite or Moabite may come into the assembly of God “even olam” (LXX: εως αιωνος, “unto an age”), even though what the Torah actually says is that no Ammonite or Moabite may come into the assembly of God unto the tenth generation (Deut. 23:3).

    All of these many, many instances of olam (and in the LXX, αιων and αιωνιος) corroborate our previous conclusion that this word was used to describe an indefinitely long time period, rather than a strictly everlasting time period as it is usually translated. Like in the Pentateuch, it was used to describe periods as short as a few years, to several generations, and even as long as the period from Abraham to the establishment of the New Heaven and Earth (when used in reference to the Abrahamic covenant).

Part 2: https://universalistheretic.blogspot.com/2022/06/just-how-long-is-eternal-study-on_01564417483.html

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[1] Adam Clarke remarks on 2 Kings 5:27 that “the denunciation took place in the posterity of Gehazi till it should become extinct, and under the influence of this disorder this must soon have taken place. The for ever implies as long as any of his posterity should remain. This is the import of the word לעולם leolam. It takes in the whole extent or duration of the thing to which it is applied. The for ever of Gehazi was till his posterity became extinct.”

Is it a sin? (morality according to Paul)

     Is it a sin? Some of the most heated debates in mainstream Christianity today are centered around what exactly is considered a “sin” in the Bible. The doctrine of hyperdispensationalism, which I subscribe to for reasons set out in this series of posts, complicates this question somewhat by recognizing that what is considered a sin for Jews might be different than what is considered a sin for Gentiles (something that Paul also acknowledges in Rom. 2:11-16). Although Jesus (during His earthly ministry), John, and the other apostles to Israel [1] clearly believed that following the Mosaic Law in its entirety was a necessity for the Jewish people (Matt. 5:17-20; 19:16-17; 23:1-3; 1 Jn. 2:3-6; 3:4), Paul, the apostle to the Gentiles, seems to have had a vastly different perspective on what is right and wrong. In this post, I will examine Paul’s views on sin and the Law, and come to a conclusion about what can be considered sinful for Gentiles.

    Paul’s perspective on the Law

Overall, Paul seems to have had a very low view of the Law in terms of how well it works at preventing sin. In fact, in one place, he says that the Law is the power of sin (1 Cor. 15:56); without the Law, sin has no power. Although he insists that the Law is not inherently a bad thing, he states that when combined with the “fleshly” nature of humanity, it actually works to increase sin rather than decrease it. As he wrote in his epistle to the Romans:

The Law came in so that the offense would increase... sin, taking an opportunity through the commandment, produced in me coveting of every kind; for apart from the Law sin is dead. I was once alive apart from the Law; but when the commandment came, sin came to life, and I died; and this commandment, which was to result in life, proved to result in death for me; for sin, taking an opportunity through the commandment, deceived me, and through it, killed me. So then, the Law is holy, and the commandment is holy and righteous and good. Therefore did that which is good become a cause of death for me? Far from it! Rather it was sin, in order that it might be shown to be sin by bringing about my death through that which is good, so that through the commandment sin would become utterly sinful. For we know that the Law is spiritual, but I am fleshly, sold into bondage to sin. (Rom. 5:20, 7:8-14 NASB)

Notice that being “fleshly”, the state which when combined with the Law produces more sinfulness, is not something that changed after Paul was saved. At the time he wrote this, he was still fleshly and sold into bondage to sin. Rather, the flesh - that which we need deliverance from, that which causes sin - is mortality, our current “bodies of death” (Rom. 7:24). More on this below.

    Therefore, since we will not be fully delivered from this mortal flesh until our resurrections unto immortality, when both death and the “sting of death” will finally be defeated (1 Cor. 15:51-56), it is both futile and detrimental to try to place ourselves under the Law. This is confirmed by what Paul says to the Galatians, that those who place themselves under the Law are under a curse:

For as many as are of the works of the Law are under a curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not abide in all things written in the book of the Law, to perform them.” Now that no one is justified by the Law before God is evident; for, “The righteous man shall live by faith.” However, the Law is not of faith; on the contrary, “He who practices them shall live by them.” Christ redeemed us from the curse of the Law, having become a curse for us — for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who hangs on a tree” — in order that in Christ Jesus the blessing of Abraham might come to the Gentiles, so that we would receive the promise of the Spirit through faith. (Gal. 3:10-14 NASB)

This also brings up another point that Paul often makes throughout his epistles - that Christ’s death, by justifying us, removed us from any and all obligation to follow the Law. This is made clear in the following passages:

For Christ is the end of the Law for righteousness to everyone who believes. (Rom. 10:4 NASB)

And when you were dead in your wrongdoings and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He made you alive together with Him, having forgiven us all our wrongdoings, having canceled the certificate of debt consisting of decrees against us, which was hostile to us; and He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross... If you have died with Christ to the elementary principles of the world, why, as if you were living in the world, do you submit yourself to decrees? (Col. 2:13-14, 20 NASB)

For he himself [Christ] is our peace... by abolishing in his flesh the hostility, which is the Law composed of commandments expressed in ordinances (Eph. 2:14-15 NASB)

Taking all of these passages together, we can conclude that Paul saw the Law as something that (1) although inherently good, when combined with our mortal flesh becomes “the power of sin” and increases sinfulness, and therefore (2) should be avoided at all costs, as following the Law puts us under a curse; for this reason, (3) Jesus has removed the Law entirely and released us from any and all obligation to follow it.

    Another extremely important thing to know about the Law is that it was never meant for the Gentiles to follow, but only for Israel alone. The Old Testament repeatedly states that the statutes and judgments of the Law are for the children of Israel (Exod. 25:21-22; Lev. 26:46; Deut. 29:1; 2 Chron. 5:10; 6:10-11), and that no other nation has such laws (Ps. 147:19-20). Paul writes that what the Law says, it says to those who are under the Law, in context meaning the Israelites (Rom. 3:19) and that the Law and covenants pertain only to Israel (Rom. 9:4; 1 Cor. 9:20; Eph. 2:11-12). Instead, Paul says, the Gentiles (as well as Jewish members of the body of Christ) are supposed to follow a different law, the law of Christ (1 Cor. 9:21; Gal. 6:2 cf. Rom. 2:14-15).

    What about the “moral law”?

Often, people will draw a distinction between the “moral law” and the “ceremonial law” of the Old Testament, and claim that whereas the ceremonial law has been abolished, we are still supposed to follow the moral commandments of the Law. The problem with this view is that no such distinction is ever drawn throughout all of scripture; it is an entirely unbiblical view being forced onto the text. Instead, Christians have to draw an arbitrary line between what they consider to be moral vs. ceremonial.

    One common line that is drawn between the moral and ceremonial law is whether it is called an “abomination” in the Old Testament. If something is called an abomination, they say, then it is forbidden for all people at all times. However, there is at least one case where an “abomination” is negated by Paul. In Deuteronomy 14:3, all unclean meats are declared “abominable” (towebah), and yet Paul says that

One person has faith that he may eat all things, but the one who is weak eats only vegetables.The one who eats is not to regard with contempt the one who does not eat, and the one who does not eat is not to judge the one who eats, for God has accepted him... I know and am convinced in the Lord Jesus that nothing is unclean in itself; but to the one who thinks something is unclean, to that person it is unclean. For if because of food your brother or sister is hurt, you are no longer walking in accordance with love. Do not destroy with your choice of food that person for whom Christ died... 
All things indeed are clean (Rom. 14:2-3, 14-15, 20 NASB)

And again:

[Do not] advocate abstaining from foods which God has created to be gratefully shared in by those who believe and know the truth. For everything created by God is good, and nothing is to be rejected if it is received with gratitude; for it is sanctified by means of the word of God and prayer. (1 Tim. 4:3-5 NASB)

Therefore, it is clear that if there is a distinction between the moral and ceremonial law, it cannot be drawn at the level of “abominations”. Another common point at which this distinction is drawn is between the Ten Commandments, or the Decalogue, and the rest of the Mosaic Law. However, again, this finds at least one exception: the commandment to keep the Sabbath (Exod. 20:8-11; Deut. 5:12-15), variously considered to be the Third or Fourth Commandment, is explicitly negated by Paul:

One person esteems one day above another; another esteems every day alike. Let each be fully convinced in his own mind. He who observes the day, observes it to the Lord; and he who does not observe the day, to the Lord he does not observe it. (Rom. 14:5-6 NKJV)

Therefore, no one is to act as your judge in regard to food and drink, or in respect to a festival or a new moon, or a Sabbath day — things which are only a shadow of what is to come; but the substance belongs to Christ. (Col. 2:16 NASB)

Thus, neither the “abomination” distinction nor the Decalogue distinction stand up to Paul’s own writings. Since there is, therefore, no distinction between the so-called “moral” and “ceremonial” laws in the Bible, any such distinction is entirely subjective and must be based on one’s own moral opinions.

    But then, if there is no clear distinction to be made between the “ceremonial law” and the “moral law” that supposedly applies to all people at all times, then how can there possible be an objective moral standard for all people? Paul’s answer to this question, as it pertains to Gentiles and members of the body of Christ [2], is simply that there isn’t. According to him,

For when Gentiles who do not have the Law instinctively perform the requirements of the Law, these, though not having the Law, are a law to themselves, in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience testifying and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them (Rom. 2:14-15 NASB)

According to Paul, the “moral law” of the Gentiles is simply written in their own conscience. For us, there is no Law of written ordinances, for that was nailed to the cross and abolished (Col. 2:13-14, 20; Eph. 2:14-15). Rather, anything that our own conscience condemns is sinful for us, even if it may not be sinful for another person (cf. Rom. 14:22-23). An objective moral standard is certainly not to be found anywhere in the Mosaic Law, for Paul says that

...as many as are of the works of the Law are under a curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not abide in all things written in the book of the Law, to perform them.” (Gal. 3:10 NASB)

This could not be any clearer: if we try to perform any part of the Law, without doing everything else written in the Law, we are under a curse. Those who separate the Law into a moral law and a ceremonial law are doing exactly what Paul condemns here. By placing themselves under a written law, rather than simply reckoning themselves dead to sin as we are exhorted to do (Rom. 6:11), they remain a slave to sin and under its power; for “the Law is the power of sin.”

    The law of Christ

However, although there is no objective moral standard to be found in the Mosaic Law itself, there is still a single, objective moral command for the Gentiles, and this is to love one another:

Owe nothing to anyone except to love one another; for the one who loves his neighbor has fulfilled the Law. For this, “You shall not commit adultery, You shall not murder, You shall not steal, You shall not covet,” and if there is any other commandment, it is summed up in this saying, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” Love does no wrong to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfillment of the Law. (Rom. 13:8-10 NASB)

For the whole Law is fulfilled in one word, in the statement, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” (Gal. 5:14 NASB)

According to Paul, the entire “moral law” for the Gentiles is summed up in the single statement, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” As clear as Paul is that this statement should be followed by the body of Christ, he is equally clear that this statement is the only objective moral command for the Gentiles; after all, we are to “owe nothing to anyone [μηδενι μηδεν - extremely emphatic] except to love one another,” and following this single commandment is the fullness (πληρωμα) of the Law.

    It is this law that Paul elsewhere called the “law of Christ” (1 Cor. 9:21; Gal. 6:2), saying that although the Gentiles are not under the Mosaic Law, they are not exempt from loving one another under the law of Christ, under which we are to bear one another’s burdens [3]. Thus, according to Paul, the only objective moral standard for the Gentiles is to love one another, which he defines as that which “does no wrong [lit. ‘evil’] to a neighbor”.

    The flesh vs. the spirit of God

Another important aspect of Pauline morality is the idea of the flesh warring against the spirit of God. This idea has been twisted beyond recognition over the centuries, with most Christians today thinking that the term “flesh” (σαρξ) is somehow related to sex, or even any kind of physical pleasure. Unfortunately, this has led to some amount of asceticism becoming inherent in the ‘Christian’ lifestyle, even though that is exactly what Paul warned against in one of his “flesh” passages (Col. 2:20-23).

    To figure out what Paul might have meant by “flesh”, we should first turn to the Old Testament to get some necessary context. In the Old Testament, whenever “flesh” (basar) is presented in a negative light, it is almost always associated with the idea of mortality and the fleeting nature of human existence. For example, see the following passages:

Then Yahweh said, “My spirit will not remain with man forever, because he is also flesh; nevertheless his days shall be 120 years.” (Gen. 6:3)

So He remembered that they were only flesh, a wind [ruach, “spirit”] that passes and does not return. (Ps. 78:39 NASB)

Now the Egyptians are men, and not God; and their horses are flesh, and not spirit. When Yahweh stretches out His hand, both he who helps will fall, and he who is helped will fall down; they all will perish together. (Isa. 31:3)

All flesh is grass, and all its loveliness is like the flower of the field. The grass withers, the flower fades, because the breath [ruach, “spirit”] of Yahweh blows upon it; surely the people are grass. The grass withers, the flower fades, but the word of our God stands forever. (Isa. 40:7-8)

Interestingly, in each of these passages the “flesh” is not only connected with the fleeting nature of human existence, but just as in Paul’s epistles, the “spirit” is compared and often contrasted with the flesh because of its everlasting nature. It is highly likely that this is what Paul had in mind when he wrote about the flesh, and is supported by Romans 7:24, which suggests that the flesh is synonymous with (or at least very closely related to) our current “body of death”, as well as Galatians 6:8 which contrasts the corruptible flesh with the immortal spirit. This is confirmed when we see that, in Paul’s theology, our mortality is what causes us to sin:

Because of this, just as through one man the sin entered into the world, and through the sin, the death, so also the death spread to all mankind, on [account of] which [εφ ω] all sinned... just as the sin reigned in the death, so also the grace should reign through righteousness. (Rom. 5:12, 21)

According to Romans 5:12, the sequence of events that occurred at Adam’s sin and afterward is: (1) through one man (Adam) the sin entered into the world; (2) through the sin (referring to Adam’s sin) death spread to all mankind; and (3) on account of death, all sinned. Although this passage is often translated as though it were saying that death came because of sin, the Greek grammar seems to indicate that it should be the other way around (the most natural referent of εφ ω is θανατος). Furthermore, the parallel implied by the “just as... so also...” clauses indicates that all sin because all die, in the same way that all die because of the sin of Adam.

    Paul goes on to say in v. 21 that sin reigns in death, in the same way that grace reigns through righteousness, which implies that the means by which sin reigns is death. This, like verse 12, provides further evidence for the view that sin is ultimately caused by mortality.

Death, where [is] your victory? Death, where [is] your sting? Now the sting of the death [is] the sin, now the power of the sin, the Law. (1 Cor. 15:55-56)

This statement, “the sting of death is sin,” has been debated and interpreted in one of two ways: either it means that sin is what gives death the power to harm us (i.e., sin causes death), or else it means that sin is the way in which death harms us (i.e., mortality causes sin). In light of the above, it seems likely that the meaning is that mortality is what causes sin.

Therefore, since the children share in flesh and blood, he himself [Christ] likewise also partook of the same, so that through death he might destroy the one who has the power of death, that is, the devil, and free those who through fear of death were subject to slavery all their lives. (Heb. 2:14-15 NASB)

According to the author of Hebrews, the fear of death is what causes us to be subject to be slavery throughout our life. Since, in the New Testament, the imagery of slavery is usually connected to sin (Jn. 8:34; Rom. 6:15-20; 7:14; 2 Pet. 2:19), this passage very likely means that the fear of death - mortality - is what causes our condition of enslavement to sin.

    But if the “flesh,” in Paul’s theology, refers to mortality, then what did Paul mean when he spoke of “walking according to flesh,” “trusting in flesh,” and the “desires of the flesh”? Well, in Paul’s epistle to the Galatians, the desire of the flesh is considered synonymous with the Law:

But I say, walk by the Spirit, and you will not carry out the desire of the flesh. For the desire of the flesh is against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh; for these are in opposition to one another, in order to keep you from doing whatever you want. But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the Law. (Gal. 5:16-18 NASB)

So then, we can conclude that our mortal flesh somehow desires to be under religious law, which is in line with what Paul said about the Law being the power of sin (i.e., being what gives sin its power). Since the “flesh” is connected with the fleeting nature of human existence, this means that trusting in the flesh, or walking according to the flesh, refers to trusting in one’s own ability to procure salvation for oneself by one’s own religious accomplishments, according to the Law. In contrast, walking according to spirit means trusting in God’s ability to unilaterally procure salvation and create within oneself the fruit of the spirit (Gal. 5:22-23).

    But does this match up with what Paul says elsewhere about the flesh? Let’s take a look at those passages:

Therefore there is now no condemnation at all for those who are in Christ Jesus. For the law of the spirit of life in Christ Jesus has set you free from the law of sin and of death. For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh, so that the requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the spirit. For those who are in accord with the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh, but those who are in accord with the spirit, the things of the spirit. For the mind set on the flesh is death, but the mind set on the spirit is life and peace, because the mind set on the flesh is hostile toward God; for it does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is not even able to do so, and those who are in the flesh cannot please God. (Rom. 8:1-8 NASB)

This passage distinguishes between what it calls “the law of sin and of death” and “the law of the spirit of life”, or “the law of God”. This first law refers to the Mosaic Law, which as described above causes sin to increase because of our mortal flesh (Rom. 5:20), whereas the second law refers to the “law of Christ” which is simply fulfilled by loving one another.

    The flesh is unable to subject itself to this second law, because it is concerned with the “things of the flesh” which are “death” (referring back to the “law of sin and death”), determined to eke out its own accomplishments in this fleeting, mortal existence by adherence to the Law which is the power of sin. However, if we allow ourselves to be changed and renewed by the spirit of God, we will set our minds on the “things of the spirit” which are “life and peace” (referring back to the “law of the spirit of life”), and grow in love toward one another [4].

...we are the true circumcision, who worship in the Spirit of God and take pride in Christ Jesus, and put no confidence in the flesh, although I myself could boast as having confidence even in the flesh. If anyone else thinks he is confident in the flesh, I have more reason: circumcised the eighth day, of the nation of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew of Hebrews; as to the Law, a Pharisee; as to zeal, a persecutor of the church; as to the righteousness which is in the Law, found blameless. But whatever things were gain to me, these things I have counted as loss because of Christ. (Php. 3:3-7 NASB)

In this passage, to have “confidence in the flesh” clearly means to have confidence in one’s own ability to follow the rules of the Law. This is in line with 2 Cor. 11:18, which states that some were “boasting according to the flesh,” in context meaning boasting about their own religious accomplishments. Paul, before being saved, had the most reason to be confident in his flesh, having been circumcised as a Jew, zealous for God, and blameless according to the Law. However, all of these things actually count as loss in Christ, because God counts the flesh as nothing compared to the spirit (cf. Gal. 6:8, 12-13).

in him [Christ] you were also circumcised with a circumcision performed without hands, in the removal of the body of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ... having canceled the certificate of debt consisting of decrees against us, which was hostile to us; and He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross... If you have died with Christ to the elementary principles of the world, why, as if you were living in the world, do you submit yourself to decrees? (Col. 2:11, 14, 20 NASB)

In the larger context of a polemic against arbitrary decrees and asceticism, Paul states that our circumcision consists of a removal of the “body of the flesh.” This is in line with the use of the term “flesh” documented elsewhere, to describe putting one’s trust in one’s own ability to procure salvation for oneself by one’s own religious accomplishments, as Paul says that these decrees which Christ has removed have “the appearance of wisdom in self-made religion” (v. 23).

Now the deeds of the flesh are evident, which are: sexual immorality, impurity, indecent behavior, idolatry, witchcraft, hostilities, strife, jealousy, outbursts of anger, selfish ambition, dissensions, factions, envy, drunkenness, carousing, and things like these, of which I forewarn you, just as I have forewarned you, that those who practice such things will not inherit the kingdom of God. (Gal. 5:19-21 NASB)

This is sometimes seen as demonstrating that Paul used the “flesh” to describe any kind of sinful behavior. Although, in a sense, this is true, because mortality is the ultimate cause of sin, I don’t think that is what Paul had in mind here, since he just defined the “desire of the flesh” as being under the Law (compare vv. 16 and 18). Rather, because the Law causes sin to increase when combined with the mortal flesh (Rom. 5:20), when the desire of the flesh to be under the Law is followed, the natural result is the “deeds of the flesh” which Paul describes in the above passage.

    In summary, when Paul speaks about the flesh warring against the spirit of God, he is not referring to physical pleasure, or even sexual desire. Rather, he is speaking about the unfortunate tendency of mortal human beings to place their trust in their own fleeting, religious accomplishments rather than the unilateral agency of God working in their heart. Because of this “flesh”, we desire to place ourselves under religious rules like the Mosaic Law, even though the Law was never truly meant for Gentiles in the first place, and has been removed for all in the body of Christ (including Jewish members). So, rather than trusting in our own agency and accomplishments, if we trust in God’s ability to renew our own hearts, we will grow in love toward one another and become subject to the liberating law of Christ.

    Paul’s polemic against religious rules

As we saw above, Paul believed that following the Law was greatly detrimental, and even contrary to one’s salvation in the body of Christ. Trying to stop one’s sinful nature by putting it under the Law just creates more sin, even though the flesh (our mortal nature) desires to be under the Law. Instead, we are supposed to place our trust in the ability of God’s spirit to regenerate our hearts and create within us the “fruit of the spirit” (Gal. 5:22-23).

    But it can’t be that there is anything inherently wrong with the moral commandments in the Law - after all, everyone would agree that not murdering or stealing is a good idea (Exod. 20:13-15), and both of those things also go against the law of Christ to love one another. So why is Paul so insistent on removing every aspect of the Law in our lives? It must have something to do with the nature of the Law, and how it interacts with our own “fleshly” natures. I can think of two reasons why this might be:

1. The psychological principle of reactance, such that when you are told not to do something, it makes you want to do it more. This is in line with what Paul says in Rom. 7:7-8 about how the Law, when it told him not to covet, instead produced in him all kinds of coveting. In contrast, the law of Christ, being a general exhortation to love one another, does not have this problem.

2. The fact that the Law provides a standard to measure oneself against others, thereby producing competitiveness and a general “holier-than-thou” attitude. This is in line with Paul’s warnings against trusting or boasting in one’s own flesh (2 Cor. 11:18; Gal. 6:12-13; Php. 3:3-7). In contrast, the law of Christ is much harder to measure up against, being a general exhortation to love one another.

In both cases, this is not a problem with the Mosaic Law specifically, but with all religious rules and prohibitions in general. Although Paul did warn against specific actions (1 Cor. 6:9-10; Gal. 5:19-21; Eph. 5:3-5), all of these can be summed up in the exhortation to “love your neighbor as yourself” (and indeed must be, because as Paul writes in Rom. 13:8-10, that is the only commandment that truly matters).

    So then, Paul did not have a problem with the Law specifically - in fact, he repeatedly said that the Law by itself is “good” (Rom. 7:12, 14, 16, 22) - he believed that religious rules and prohibitions in general (typified in the Law) were not meant for the body of Christ, and catered to the desires of the flesh, thereby producing even more sin. This is confirmed in Paul’s letters to the Colossians and to Timothy:

If you have died with Christ to the elementary principles of the world, why, as if you were living in the world, do you submit yourself to decrees, such as, “Do not handle, do not taste, do not touch!” (which all refer to things destined to perish with use)—in accordance with the commandments and teachings of man? These are matters which do have the appearance of wisdom in self-made religion and humility and severe treatment of the body, but are of no value against fleshly indulgence. (Col. 2:20-23 NASB)

But the goal of our instruction is love from a pure heart, from a good conscience, and from a sincere faith. Some people have strayed from these things and have turned aside to fruitless discussion, wanting to be teachers of the Law, even though they do not understand either what they are saying or the matters about which they make confident assertions. (1 Tim. 1:5-7 NASB)

Placing others under decrees, the commandments of man that are nowhere to be found in scripture, goes entirely contrary to Paul’s message of freedom in the law of Christ. Even if these commandments appear to have wisdom, religiosity, and humility, they are contrary to Christ and have no value against the flesh (our sinful nature caused by mortality). The goal of morality is simple, and that is “love from a pure heart;” arguing otherwise is simply “fruitless discussion” and fit only for heretical “teachers of the Law.”

    So... is it a sin?

Going back to the original question that plagues Christianity today, over whether specific actions should be considered sins or not, the answer is... it’s complicated. Scripture was never meant to be a rule book for Gentiles, or even for members of the body of Christ; so there is no black-and-white standard by which one can say “such-and-such is a sin,” or “such-and-such is not a sin.” Very likely, there were many things considered to be wrong in Paul’s day that shouldn’t be considered wrong today, and we don’t know enough about the cultural context to piece together exactly why such things were considered wrong.

    If you’re asking whether a specific action is a sin, you’re likely coming at the issue from entirely the wrong angle. We aren’t supposed to focus on specific actions and prohibitions - which is exactly what Paul warned against - but on acting out of love in everything that we do. However, if a question like this is still plaguing you, consider these two questions:

1. Will this action end up harming myself or someone else? Paul defines love as that which “does no harm to a neighbor” (Rom. 13:10), so if it harms another person, it is most definitely wrong. However, if it does no harm to yourself or anyone else, then it can’t be considered objectively wrong.

2. Will my conscience allow me to do this action? Paul says that there are some things that aren’t objectively wrong for everyone, but if you yourself can’t do it in good faith, then it might be a sin for you personally (Rom. 14:22-23). But if it does no harm to yourself and anyone else, and your conscience allows you to do it, then you are free to do it; it is not a sin for you.

Unfortunately, the majority of Christians don’t live by these guidelines, and instead force unscriptural rules on people, which is exactly the thing that Paul warned about. They see the Bible as a rule book that has objective moral prohibitions for all people at all times, which has led to actions that don’t harm anyone as being seen as sinful and morally repugnant. People who do this, however, are catering to the desires of the flesh and remaining under the power of sin [5], even if they don’t see themselves as doing so. We should join Paul in condemning such rules as

the commandments and teachings of man... matters which do have the appearance of wisdom in self-made religion and humility and severe treatment of the body, but are of no value against fleshly indulgence. (Colossians 2:22-23 NASB)

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[1] Galatians 2:7-9 cf. Matt. 15:24; Rom. 15:8

[2] In which there is no functional difference between Jew and Gentile (Gal. 3:28).

[3] It is important to note that, although we are exhorted to love one another, this is by no means necessary to keep our salvation. As Paul said to the Corinthians, “All things are permitted, but not all things are of benefit. All things are permitted, but not all things edify” (1 Cor. 10:23 cf. 6:12). Because we have been fully justified, all things are permissible in the sense that nothing that we do can cause us to lose our salvation. However, only those things which do not go against the law of Christ, to love one another, are beneficial.

[4] It is likely that Paul, in this passage, is simply elaborating on what he said just before: “with my mind I am serving the law of God, but with my flesh the law of sin” (Rom. 7:25). This is even more explicit on the distinction between the two “laws” and their relation to the flesh versus the spirit.

[5] Both of which are considered synonymous with “the Law” in Paul’s epistles (1 Cor. 15:56; Gal. 5:16-18).

All things in the heavens

     Within Christian universalism, there are two different schools of thought on how extensive the ultimate salvation and reconciliation will be. Some universalists believe that all human beings will be saved, but extend this salvation no further than all humanity, believing that neither the devil nor his angels will ever be reconciled. This is a sort of ‘soft universalism’, or as I often call it, anthropological universalism. Others believe that all rational and conscious beings will be saved, including the devil and his angels, which I call ‘full universalism’. So, which of these is more biblical? In this post, we will examine both sides of the argument and come to a conclusion based on the scriptural evidence.

    Who is the devil?

Before getting into the question of whether the devil will be reconciled to God - which is, indeed, a doozy of a question - we must first examine what the Bible actually says about the nature of the devil. The word “devil” literally means “slanderer”, whereas the word “satan” literally means “adversary” - the being called the devil and the Satan (for example, seen in Matt. 4 and Rev. 12) is the ultimate Adversary and Slanderer of the people of God.

    Most Christians see the devil as an angelic being who was once the greatest of God’s creations, and yet fell (almost immediately) into sin after grasping at equality with God. Now, they believe, he remains the greatest enemy of God and is always working contrary to His will. But is this what scripture actually says? There are two passages thought to teach that the devil originally was a great angelic being and then fell from grace: Ezekiel 28 and Isaiah 14. Let’s take a look at each of these passages.

And there is a word of Yahweh unto me, saying: “Son of man, lift up a lamentation for the king of Tyre, and thou hast said to him: Thus said the Lord Yahweh: Thou art sealing up a measurement, full of wisdom, and perfect in beauty. In Eden, the garden of God, thou hast been, every precious stone thy covering, ruby, topaz, and diamond, beryl, onyx, and jasper, sapphire, emerald, and carbuncle, and gold, the workmanship of thy tabrets, and of thy pipes, in thee in the day of thy being produced, have been prepared. Thou [art] an anointed cherub who is covering, and I have set thee in the holy mount, God thou hast been, in the midst of stones of fire thou hast walked up and down. Perfect [art] thou in thy ways, from the day of thy being produced, till perversity hath been found in thee. By the abundance of thy merchandise they have filled thy midst with violence, and thou dost sin, and I thrust thee from the mount of God, and I destroy thee, O covering cherub, From the midst of the stones of fire. High hath been thy heart, because of thy beauty, thou hast corrupted thy wisdom because of thy brightness, on the earth I have cast thee, before kings I have set thee, to look on thee, from the abundance of thy iniquity, by the perversity of thy traffic, thou hast polluted thy sanctuaries, and I bring forth fire from thy midst, it hath devoured thee, and I make thee become ashes on the earth, before the eyes of all beholding thee. All knowing thee among the peoples have been astonished at thee, wastes thou hast been, and thou art not — to the age.” (Ezek. 28:11-19 YLT)

...thou hast taken up this simile concerning the king of Babylon, and said... “How hast thou fallen from the heavens, O shining one [Lucifer], son of the dawn! Thou hast been cut down to earth, O weakener of nations. And thou saidst in thy heart: the heavens I go up, above stars of God I raise my throne, And I sit in the mount of meeting in the sides of the north. I go up above the heights of a thick cloud, I am like to the Most High. Only — unto Sheol thou art brought down, unto the sides of the pit.” (Isa. 14:4, 12-15 YLT)

The problem with seeing these passages as describing the “fall of Satan” should be obvious; they are not about the devil. Rather, they are explicitly about the king of Tyre and the king of Babylon respectively. And the first passage cannot be describing anything other than the human king of Tyre, even if it uses figurative imagery, because twice in the immediate context it says that this king is “a man” (vv. 2, 9). Likewise, the second passage, about the king of Babylon, also describes this king as a “man” (v. 16) and is said to be describing the judgment of Babylon (vv. 22-23), not of a spiritual being.

    The idea that the the Adversary fell from heaven [1] likely came out of the idea that God cannot create anything that is evil, even to serve a better purpose, despite clear statements to the contrary (Job 2:10; Isa. 45:7). However, in contrast to the strained interpretations of Ezekiel 28 and Isaiah 14 to support this doctrine, we have explicit statements that the Adversary has always been an adversary and a slanderer. It is said that he was both a murderer and a sinner from the beginning (Jn. 8:44; 1 Jn. 3:8); although this could, theoretically, be interpreted in a way that is compatible with the doctrine of the “fall of Satan”, the most clear and natural interpretation is that the Adversary was created as a sinner. So, although I would not be too dogmatic on this issue (because there aren’t many passages that discuss it), the most scriptural position seems to be that the Adversary did not fall, but was created as a sinner.

    Furthermore, rather than the Adversary working against God’s ultimate will, there are indications in scripture that he is ultimately an agent of God’s will, and as firmly under the sovereignty of God as we humans are. According to 1 Chronicles 21:1, it was the Adversary that provoked David to take a census of Israel, apparently going against God’s will, for which David was later punished. And yet, according to 2 Samuel 24:1, it was Yahweh that provoked David to take a census of Israel! This is only an irreconcilable contradiction unless we recognize that the Adversary is, ultimately, working out God’s sovereign will as much as we humans are [2], even though he may perceive himself as working against God’s preceptive will. Furthermore, in Job 2:1-6, the Adversary is unable to lift a hand against Job until given permission by Yahweh, and Job later identifies the ultimate source of the evil against him as God (Job 2:10).

    However, this does not mean that the Adversary is purposely working in accordance with God’s will. After all, in both the Old and New Testaments, the Adversary is presented as, well, an adversary. We can conclude that, although the Adversary is ultimately working towards the purposes which God has created for him (whatever they may be), he still perceives himself as working against God’s will (which in a sense is true, as he is going against God’s preceptive will).

    So, rather than seeing the Adversary as a created angelic being that fell away from God and is now working against Him, the biblical picture of the Adversary is as one who was created specifically for the purpose of adversity, and is just as much under the sovereignty of God as we are. The “angels” or “messengers” of the Adversary, however, which are called “demons” elsewhere, do seem to have been corrupted and deceived by the Adversary (for example, see Rev. 12:4, 7-9). With this in mind, let’s examine the question of whether these beings will eventually be reconciled to God.

    Position #1: the Adversary and his angels are beyond redemption

The first position, held by some universalists, is that only humans are able to be saved and reconciled to God, and all other beings are beyond redemption. This position is what I call ‘anthropological universalism’. This position was held by several early Christian theologians like Origen of Alexandria and Basil of Caesarea. There are a few passages that can be adduced in support of anthropological universalism:

“Then shall he say also to those on the left hand, Go ye from me, the cursed, to the fire, the age-during, that hath been prepared for the Devil and his messengers” (Matt. 25:41 YLT)

According to the traditional interpretation of this passage, the age-during fire (of Gehenna?) has been prepared for the Adversary and his angels, even though many humans (the “goats”) will go there as well. However, this is not the best interpretation of this passage based on its overall context; as I set out in another post of mine, this passage (Matt. 25:31-46) is describing the judgment of the surviving Gentile unbelievers that will remain after the end of the tribulation, with the “sheep” who helped Israel during its time of adversity being granted access to the kingdom, and the “goats” who persecuted Israel being sent far away from the kingdom in Israel and treated as slaves.

    The “age-during fire” in this passage seems to be a figurative description of the adversity which the “goats” are set to experience during the Messianic age (cf. Deut. 4:20; Isa. 48:10; Ezek. 22:20; 1 Pet. 1:7; 4:12). These goats will comprise the “nations” that Christ and believers will “rule over with a rod of iron” (Ps. 2:8-9; Rev. 2:26-27; 19:15), and who will be treated as slaves, forced to obey in all things or suffer severe consequences as a reprimand for their harsh treatment of Israel (Joel 3:5-8; Zech. 14:16-19). 

    So then, it cannot be the punishment of the ‘age-during fire’ itself that will be prepared for the Adversary and his angels, because they will be confined to an ‘abyss’ during the time that this punishment of the goats is taking place (2 Pet. 2:4; Jude 6; Rev. 20:1-3). Rather, this fire is prepared for them in the sense that it will make ready the nations for the deception that the Adversary and his angels will perpetuate at the end of the Messianic age (Rev. 20:7-9). Thus, this passage doesn’t really provide any input on the issue of whether the Adversary and his angels will be saved.

    But even if the traditional interpretation, that the ‘age-during fire’ was prepared for them in the sense that they will be punished by it, was correct, what would this really prove anyway? All that it would show is that the Adversary and his angels will be punished in fire for an ‘age-during’ period. Since the adjective αιωνιος rarely, if ever, means strictly “without end” when used in scripture, this passage would still be equivocal on the issue of whether their punishment will eventually end.

messengers also, those who did not keep their own principality, but did leave their proper dwelling, to a judgment of a great day, in bonds everlasting [αιδιοις], under darkness He hath kept (Jude 6 YLT)

This passage is somewhat stronger evidence that certain fallen angels will never be reconciled. This is because the bonds in which these angels are kept are described as αιδιος, an adjective which does mean strictly “eternal” in Greek. However, the context qualifies the period for which these angels will only be kept in bonds under darkness as only until the “judgment of a great day”, which the parallel passage of 2 Peter 2:4 supports. So then, in what sense are these bonds αιδιος? Another possible translation of this word in this context is “imperceptible” or “invisible”, based on its etymology from the words α- (“not”) and οιδα (“to see/perceive”), which would be equivocal as to whether the punishment of these angels will eventually end.

and the Devil, who is leading them astray, was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where [are] the beast and the false prophet, and they shall be tormented day and night — to the ages of the ages. (Rev. 20:10 YLT)

This passage characterizes the torment of the Adversary, the beast, and the false prophet as εις τους αιωνας των αιωνων (“for the ages of the ages”). Cross-referencing this passage with others like Gal. 1:5; Php. 4:20; 1 Tim. 1:17; Rev. 7:12; 10:6; and 15:7, which describe the glory and life of God as continuing “for the ages of the ages”, it is argued that the torment of these beings will never end, for the glory and life of God are likewise unending.

    However, just because God’s glory and life will continue for the ages of the ages does not mean that they will end after that time. It is worth noting that other things categorized as “for the ages of the ages” in scripture, such as the dominion and reign of Jesus Christ (2 Tim. 4:18; Heb. 13:21; 1 Pet. 4:11; Rev. 1:6; 5:13; 11:15) and the dominion of the saints (Rev. 22:5), are explicitly said to end in 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 when Jesus will abolish all rule, power, and authority and hand over the kingdom to God, voluntarily subjecting Himself to the Father. In fact, an argument can be made from this passage that the torment of the Adversary, beast, and false prophet will end:

Premise 1. Christ will reign for “the ages of the ages” (Rev. 11:15).

Premise 2. The reign of Christ will eventually come to an end (1 Cor. 15:24-28).

Premise 3. The torment of the Adversary, beast, and false prophet will continue for “the ages of the ages” (Rev. 20:10).

Conclusion. The torment of the Adversary, beast, and false prophet will eventually come to an end.

Although Revelation 20:10 does not necessarily prove that the torment of these three beings will end - any more than Philippians 4:20 proves that the glory of God will come to an end - it is at the very least equivocal on this issue, because we know that other things characterized as lasting “for the ages of the ages” will also end.

    Position #2: the Adversary and his angels will be reconciled

The second position, which I call ‘full universalism’, is that the Adversary and his angels will be reconciled along with the rest of humanity. Full universalism was believed by several of the theological heavyweights of early Christianity, including Gregory of Nyssa and (at first) Jerome of Stridon. This position finds its greatest scriptural support in Colossians 1:15-20:

[Christ] is [the] image of the invisible God, [the] firstborn of all creation, because in him was created the all things, in the heavens and upon the earth, the visible and the invisible, whether thrones or lordships or rulers or authorities, the all things has been created through him and for him. And he is before all things, and the all things has been established in him. And he is the head of the body, the assembly, who is the beginning, a firstborn out of the dead, so that in all things he may become [the one] having preeminence, because in him all the fullness [of God] was pleased to dwell, and through him to reconcile the all things to Himself, [he] having made peace through the blood of his cross, through him, whether the [things] upon the earth, whether the [things] in the heavens.

According to this passage, the “all things” which will be reconciled to God are the same all things described earlier as “the all things in the heavens and upon the earth, the visible and the invisible”, that is, clearly all beings without exception. This is confirmed by the use of the definite article throughout this passage, which shows each instance of τα παντα to be referring to the same set of ‘things’. This is also the same “all things” which Christ is preeminent over, elsewhere said to be all things in the heavens and upon the earth, whether living or dead (Matt. 28:18; Rom. 14:9 cf. Eph. 1:10).

    Since, per Revelation 12, both the Adversary and his messengers are currently in the heavens, the “all things in the heavens” that will be reconciled certainly includes them. And furthermore, the fact that Jesus is most certainly preeminent over the Adversary - in fact, that is one of the very reasons that He came, to gain power over and nullify the authority of the Adversary (Jn. 12:31; Heb. 2:14; 1 Jn. 3:8) - makes it even more clear that the Adversary is part of the “all things” being considered in this passage. But if the Adversary is part of the “all things” which are created in Him, and which He is preeminent over, then he must also be part of the “all things” which will be reconciled to God through Him.

    Furthermore, Paul states that one category of the “all things” that will be reconciled is the rulers (αρχαι) and authorities (εξουσιαι) in the heavens. And yet this is almost exactly the terminology he uses elsewhere to describe the demonic forces which we currently our enemies:

Put on the panoply of God, to enable you to stand up to the schemes of the Adversary, because ours is not the wrestling with flesh and blood, but with the rulers, with the authorities, with the world-rulers of this darkness, with the spirituals of evil, in the heavenlies. (Eph. 6:11-12)

There can be little doubt that Paul had the same idea in mind when writing about the “rulers” and “authorities... in the heavens” in both his epistle to the Colossians and to the Ephesians. But this means that the same demonic forces that are currently our enemies, including the Adversary, will eventually be reconciled to God. Even if, as non-universalists argue, this Colossians passage is simply describing a potential reconciliation [3], this is still incompatible with the mainstream position that neither the Adversary nor his angels even have the possibility of being saved.

    Another passage that supports the idea that the Adversary and his angels will eventually be reconciled to God is 1 Corinthians 15:24-28:

...then the consummation, when he may deliver the kingdom to the God and Father, when he may nullify all rule and all authority and power. For [it] is necessary [for] him to reign until He may put all the enemies under his feet. [The] last enemy is being abolished: the death. For He subjected all things under his feet. Now when it may be said that all things have been subjected, [it is] clear that the [One] having subjected the all things to him [is] excepted. Now when the all things may be subjected to him, then also the Son himself will be subjected to the [One] having subjected the all things to him, so that God may be the all things, in all.

According to this passage, all of God’s enemies will be subjected to Christ and put under His feet. Of course, the Adversary and his angels are to be included in the category of “the enemies” which will be subjected to Christ and put under His feet. However, throughout the Pauline corpus, the notion of subjection to Christ is always connected to reconciliation, not a subjection of destruction. For example, see Php. 2:9-11 and 3:21, which present the subjection of all things to Christ as a glorious time in which all will bow to Him and acknowledge Him as Lord, and Ephesians 1:21-23, which connects the subjection of all things with the same subjection by which Christ is head of the church, namely, reconciliation.

    However, even if we did not have these other passages that present subjection to Christ as reconciliation, the final verse of this passage should remove any remaining doubt, as it says that after this subjection God will be “the all things, in all” (τα παντα εν πασιν). For God to be “in all”, all beings must first be reconciled to Him, including the enemies that have been subjected under Christ’s feet. Therefore, Paul’s prophecy in 1 Cor. 15:24-28 provides further evidence that the Adversary will be reconciled to God, at the end of the ages of the ages for which his torment will continue (Rev. 20:10).

    Finally, the last passage that supports the idea that even rebel angels (including the Adversary) will eventually be saved and reconciled is Ephesians 3:8-11:

To me, the less than least of all saints, was given this grace: to preach the incomprehensible riches of the Christ to the Gentiles, and to enlighten all [as to] what [is] the administration of the secret, the [one] having been hidden from the ages in God, the [One who] created the all things, so that now the manifold wisdom of God may be made known through the assembly to the rulers and to the authorities in the heavenlies, according to a purpose of the ages which He made in the Christ, Jesus our Lord.

Compare this to what Paul wrote at the end of the same epistle to the Ephesians:

Put on the panoply of God, to enable you to stand up to the schemes of the Adversary, because ours is not the wrestling with flesh and blood, but with the rulers, with the authorities, with the world-rulers of this darkness, with the spirituals of evil, in the heavenlies. (Eph. 6:11-12)

There can be no doubt that Paul was writing about the same demonic forces, the “rulers and authorities in the heavenlies”, when he wrote the first passage as the second. However, he expects that in the oncoming ages when the body of Christ will be seated with Christ in the heavens (Eph. 2:6-7), we will also be evangelizing the same demonic forces which are currently our enemies. This is inconceivable if it is impossible for fallen angels to be saved, which is the mainstream position of Christianity.

    Paul’s epistle to the Ephesians shows that at the very least it is possible for fallen angels to be reconciled to God, which in turn implies that they will be reconciled to God. This is because according to God’s very nature, His sovereignty over all and love for all, He must effect the reconciliation of any being that has the potential to be reconciled to Him (as I argued in my last post).

    These three texts provide very strong scriptural evidence that both the Adversary and his fallen angels will be reconciled to God along with the rest of humanity. Not only do we have explicit statements that all of the rulers and authorities in the heavens (referring to demonic forces) will be reconciled to God through Christ (Col. 1:16) and that all of God’s enemies will be subjected and reconciled, thus making God the all things in all (1 Cor. 15:24-28), but we are also told that one of the duties of the body of Christ is to evangelize these demonic forces (Eph. 3:8-11). In contrast, the texts that are used to argue that the Adversary and his angels will not be saved are fairly equivocal on this issue. Because of this, I think we can be certain from scripture that all of God’s enemies, including the Adversary, will be reconciled to Him in the end.

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[1] It should be noted that, although the fall of the Adversary from heaven is described in scripture (Lk. 10:18, Rev. 12) this is depicted as a future event that will occur close to the time that the Messianic kingdom is established on earth.

[2] For scriptural support of this position, see Job 23:13-14; Ps. 33:14-15; Prov. 16:1, 4, 9, 33; 19:21; 20:24; 21:1; Isa. 45:5-7; Jer. 10:23; Lam. 3:37-39; Dan. 5:23; Acts 17:25, 28; Php. 2:13; Jas. 4:13-15; Rev. 17:17.

[3] This interpretation is hard to reconcile with the grammar of this passage, since the verb “to reconcile” is not in the subjunctive mood (which would introduce an element of uncertainty) but in the infinitive mood.

"Has God rejected his people?": an exegesis of Romans 11:1-36

Part 2: Romans 9:30-10:21     “God hasn’t rejected his people!” I ask, then, has God rejected his people? By no means! I myself am an Israel...